Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 18.06.2025 05:17
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
NASA sets new potential launch date for Ax-4 mission to ISS - SpaceNews
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Devil’s Third director says panned Wii U game was innovative for its time - Nintendo Everything
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Can a cop pull you over walking home asking why you are out so late?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.